Testwiki:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2015 July 28

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July 28

"Root mean-n-power"

Let A be a (finite) sequence of b nonnegative real numbers with nth term denoted by an. Define F(m)=k=0bakm.

For m = 1, F(1)b is simply the ordinary mean, while F(2)b is the root mean square. We know that limm(F(m)/n)1/m=max(A) where max(A) is the biggest number of A, as can be demonstrated by L'hôpital's rule, assuming there is a unique maximum (i.e. there are not two numbers for max(A)).

My question is then whether I can claim the same in the continuous case. Let f(x) be a continuous function on the positive real line that doesn't take negative values. Then, over an interval [c, d] somewhere on the positive real line with d > c, G(m)=cdf(x)mdx; d could possibly be infinite, in which case it must be assumed that f vanishes sufficiently quickly for the integral to always converge. Unfortunately, my technique using L'hôpital's rule fails to resolve the question limm(G(m)/(dc))1/m because in a quotient of integrals (as I obtain) you cannot cancel factors in the integrands. I do know that integrals are defined as the limit of finite Riemann sums, each of which can have the discrete method for F applied, but I am also wary of the interchange of limiting operations.--Jasper Deng (talk) 19:16, 28 July 2015 (UTC)

See also Power mean inequality. --JBL (talk) 19:39, 28 July 2015 (UTC)
Thanks, I had been looking for the name of the discrete case. And it turns out that it's not even necessary for max(A) to be unique.--Jasper Deng (talk) 19:44, 28 July 2015 (UTC)
Since f is continuous on a closed interval it has a maximum M and some x for which f(x)=M (I'll assume x(c,d) but the proof is the same if x is c or d). For every ϵ>0 there is δ>0 such that |tx|<δf(t)Mϵ. Then G(m)=cdf(t)m dtxδx+δf(t)m dtxδx+δ(Mϵ)m dt=2δ(Mϵ)m. So (G(m)/(dc))1/m(Mϵ)(2δ/(dc))1/m. Since the second term goes to 1 as m, limm(G(m)/(dc))1/mMϵ. This is true for every ϵ so limm(G(m)/(dc))1/mM. It is obviously not greater, so it is equal to the maximum. -- Meni Rosenfeld (talk) 07:48, 29 July 2015 (UTC)
Thanks. What an elegant proof that didn't even rely on interchanging limits!--Jasper Deng (talk) 08:29, 29 July 2015 (UTC)
More generally, a similar proof will show that for any measurable function f on a finite measure space (X,μ), (X|f|mdμ)1/m tends to the essential supremum of f as m. (It's also true for an integrable function, without the assumption that the measure space is finite.) Sławomir
Biały
11:22, 29 July 2015 (UTC)