Testwiki:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2015 December 23

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December 23

Can someone explain why in the permutation formula n(n1)(n2)(nk+1)=n!(nk)! we have n(k1) choices of picking the k element? I don't see the logic.

This proof will help me get the binomial coefficient. יהודה שמחה ולדמן (talk) 08:02, 23 December 2015 (UTC)

First you need to choose the 1st element. You have n choices.
Then you choose the 2nd element. 1 of the n elements was already chosen and you can't choose it again. So there are n1 elements remaining, and this is the number of choices.
Then you choose the 3rd element. 2 of the n elements were already chosen and you can't choose them again. So there are n2 elements remaining, and this is the number of choices.
Then you choose the 4th element. 3 of the n elements were already chosen and you can't choose them again. So there are n3 elements remaining, and this is the number of choices.
...
Then you choose the kth element. k1 of the n elements were already chosen and you can't choose them again. So there are n(k1) elements remaining, and this is the number of choices.
-- Meni Rosenfeld (talk) 11:01, 23 December 2015 (UTC)
At the kth row here, do you mean k1 elements were already chosen? יהודה שמחה ולדמן (talk) 12:09, 23 December 2015 (UTC)
Correct, sorry. Fixed now. -- Meni Rosenfeld (talk) 12:45, 23 December 2015 (UTC)

Generalization of Γ function

Can anyone find an expression for Γa(x+1)=xaΓa(x) ? (Definite integral, infinite series or product, continued fraction, etc). If not in the general case, then at least for one or more special cases, such as a=±2,±3,±12, etc. Thank you. — 79.118.191.221 (talk) 22:45, 23 December 2015 (UTC)

Simply (Γ(x))a will do the trick. -- Meni Rosenfeld (talk) 00:03, 24 December 2015 (UTC)
Man, I feel silly sometimes... :-) — 79.118.170.51 (talk) 14:19, 24 December 2015 (UTC)

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