Testwiki:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2014 January 20

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January 20

Algebraic factorisation

This expression arose in some probability calculations I was doing on a square grid:

p^4 (1 + 4q + 10q^2 + 20q^3) + q^4 (1 + 4p + 10p^2 + 20p^3)

For p+q=1 it should have value 1 (checked with some trial values), suggesting that some power of (p+q) is a factor. Is it possible to factorise it in these terms?→31.54.113.130 (talk) 22:11, 20 January 2014 (UTC).

p+q is not a factor. Setting q=-p does not give zero. Sławomir Biały (talk) 23:30, 20 January 2014 (UTC)
The fact that p4(1+4q+10q2+20q3)+q4(1+4p+10p2+20p3)=1 when p+q=1 means that p+q1 is a factor of p4(1+4q+10q2+20q3)+q4(1+4p+10p2+20p3)1. The factorization is
p4(1+4q+10q2+20q3)+q4(1+4p+10p2+20p3)1=(q+p1)(20q3p3+10q3p2+4q3p+q3+10q2p3+6q2p2+3q2p+q2+4qp3+3qp2+2qp+q+p3+p2+p+1)
but this is of no help whatsoever in factoring p4(1+4q+10q2+20q3)+q4(1+4p+10p2+20p3) (without the -1 term). In fact there is no multinomial in p and q with with integer or rational coefficients which is is a factor of your original expression (other than 1 and the expression itself). --catslash (talk) 00:25, 21 January 2014 (UTC)
Thanks, I wasn't thinking straight. I now realise that if (p+q) is taken out as a factor of some of the terms it can then be set to 1 and vanish, whereupon the expression shortens and can be simplified in a like manner until eventually it does become a power of (p+q) and thus seen to have value 1. This is less tedious than substituting for one of p and q as 1 minus the other and then expanding all of the powers.→31.54.113.130 (talk) 19:53, 21 January 2014 (UTC)