Testwiki:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2014 April 8
Template:Error:not substituted
|- ! colspan="3" align="center" | Mathematics desk |- ! width="20%" align="left" | < April 7 ! width="25%" align="center"|<< Mar | April | May >> ! width="20%" align="right" |Current desk > |}
| Welcome to the Wikipedia Mathematics Reference Desk Archives |
|---|
| The page you are currently viewing is a transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
Contents
April 8
One Last Coincidence
As usual, my question is whether there might not be something deeper to these `coincidences`. — 79.113.255.148 (talk) 00:29, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
Lorentz group: Exponential mapping onto?
Hi!
Is the map Template:Math onto?
I know it is for the rotation subgroup. I also know that every LT Template:Math can be written as Template:Math where Template:Math is a pure boost and Template:Math is a pure rotation. Then Template:Math, where Template:Math and Template:Math are suitable "generators" of boosts and rotations respectively.
Is it generally true then that Template:Math for some Template:Math?
The answer is definitely affirmative near the identity by the Baker-Campbell-Hausdorff formula. Template:Math is then a bracket series in Template:Math and Template:Math (not Template:Math).
How about far from the identity? YohanN7 (talk) 11:29, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Yes, the exponential map is surjective in this case. Whenever the Lie group is compact, the exponential map is a surjection onto the identity component. I don't know of an easy proof of this, but you can use the Hopf–Rinow theorem to see it. In the case of the Lorentz group , the connected component containing the identity is . --SamTalk 12:51, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- I believe your conclusion may be correct, but the reason you give isn't, because the Lorentz group is not compact. YohanN7 (talk) 13:22, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- The onto character of Template:Math in the case of Template:Math and other compact classical groups is easiest seen utilizing the fact that the group elements are all conjugate to matrices of a special form. The representatives of these conjugacy classes are then explicitly seen to be one-parameter subgroups. YohanN7 (talk) 13:35, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- The same reasoning will apply for the Lorentz group. It's a quotient of the complex semi simple group SL(2,C), and in that group you can use the Jordan decomposition. (It's probably true for all complex semisimple connected groups for basically the same reason, but I haven't really thought about the details). Sławomir Biały (talk) 13:52, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- The exponential map for is not surjective, for instance the matrix is in Jordan normal form and is not in the image of the exponential map. --SamTalk 14:12, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Oh, of course you're right. My argument only works if you have nonzero trace. Sławomir Biały (talk) 15:19, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- The exponential map for is not surjective, for instance the matrix is in Jordan normal form and is not in the image of the exponential map. --SamTalk 14:12, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Oops, sorry about that YohanN7! I was too hasty. Yes, another proof for compact groups is to use that every element is contained in a Cartan subgroup, and that these are all conjugate. This is still not helpful in this instance though.
- Here's an argument. The exponential map is nearly surjective: is surjective. From this the result follows for because of the exceptional isomorphism . I don't know how you would see it in more generality. --SamTalk 14:10, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- The same reasoning will apply for the Lorentz group. It's a quotient of the complex semi simple group SL(2,C), and in that group you can use the Jordan decomposition. (It's probably true for all complex semisimple connected groups for basically the same reason, but I haven't really thought about the details). Sławomir Biały (talk) 13:52, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- My purpose is to come with a reliable statement regarding this in Representation theory of the Lorentz group. Either of a "reliable source" or a simple proof would do. I haven't seen the statement (or its negation) being made anywhere in the literature.
- Would you be able to come up with something less general without explicit or implicit isomorphisms? The exponential mapping is (in this context), after all, a map from a Lie algebra to the connected group generated by it, not to another isomorphic group or some quotient. Consider, for reference, the proof below for compact classical groups:
- Consider a compact classical group Template:Math. Let Template:Math be arbitrary. Then Template:Math where Template:Math and Template:Math with Template:Math, the Lie algebra of Template:Math (conjugation properties of compact classical groups). Now, by following the definition of Template:Math, Template:Math and Template:Math by using properties of the adjoint representation of Template:Math.
- Let Template:Math be the quotient map. Could I then easily prove that for each Template:Math, there is at least one (exactly one would be nice) element of the fiber Template:Math that is in the image of Template:Math? Your answers above suggests that this is the case, except perhaps for "ease" of proof. That would solve the problem (using some isomorphisms). YohanN7 (talk) 16:47, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- I'm not sure what you're asking. Once you know that the exponential map is surjective, the rest follows. That it is surjective for follows from the fact that it is so for , by the Jordan normal form considerations mentioned above.
- There can be either 1 or 2 elements in the image of in a fiber, e.g. . --SamTalk 17:46, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- I don't know how to prove the more general result for , so I don't know how to avoid using accidental isomorphisms. --SamTalk 17:48, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Let Template:Math be the quotient map. Could I then easily prove that for each Template:Math, there is at least one (exactly one would be nice) element of the fiber Template:Math that is in the image of Template:Math? Your answers above suggests that this is the case, except perhaps for "ease" of proof. That would solve the problem (using some isomorphisms). YohanN7 (talk) 16:47, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Thanks, with the Template:Math-argument, there are no loose ends, but that was new. At any rate, I have found an argument using Template:Math and its conjugacy classes only (that I can source, Rossman). If I can prove that
- is in the image of Template:Math, then I'm done because Template:Math so Template:Math under Template:Math. (Note that I've taken the liberty of naming your matrix of above.) The rest is exactly as in the compact case. YohanN7 (talk) 18:47, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Just to explain my "problem" with (hidden) isomormhisms. With these, for a full proof, one needs to display (at least imagine) a commutative diagram, at the worst one has to prove that it commutes. In the present case, with notation as above, there is a theorem. If Template:Math is a homomorphism, then its differential Template:Math is a homomorphism and Template:Math. The lhs as a whole is surjective. Therefore the exp on the rhs (not the same exp as on the lhs) is surjective. Since the conjugacy class represented by Template:Math above was the only problematic class, I'm now completely satisfied. YohanN7 (talk) 20:25, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Thanks, with the Template:Math-argument, there are no loose ends, but that was new. At any rate, I have found an argument using Template:Math and its conjugacy classes only (that I can source, Rossman). If I can prove that
Expressing 2.5cm in mm?
How will you do that? Please explain me, step by step how to do it (everywhere I ask, I get too much of a short answer which doesn't help me understand the way needed for this simple calculation). thank you. 79.177.27.113 (talk) 18:38, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- Converting between metric units is designed to be "easy," but it can be tedious to explain every little step. Metric conversion doesn't exist as an article, and conversion of units thinks that converting between metric prefixes is too east to mention! So, here's an explanation, hope it helps.
- First, you should be familiar with the meter, whose symbol is 'm', and the metric prefix system, which explains how powers of ten are communicated with words like "centi-" or "deci-" and so on. So, 2.5 cm is 2.5 centi meters and centi- means "one one-hundredth", which is (2.5 meters)/100. You could also think of it as (2.5 meters) * 0.01, which is the same thing written a little differently. Now, if you want it it milli meters, you look and see that "milli-" means a factor of 1/1000, or 0.001. Now, we can convert directly to millimeters by just "moving the decimal point" - but that can be tricky for unfamiliar prefixes. So the safest way is to convert cm to m, then m to mm. In this case, . Now 1 m = 1000 mm, so we can multiply a unit in meters by 1000 to get a unit in mm. So, 0.025 m = 0.025 X 1000 mm = 25 mm.
- Finally, we have If that explanation doesn't make sense, here's a few other tutorials on the topic [1] [2]. SemanticMantis (talk) 19:07, 8 April 2014 (UTC)
- If you know there are 10 mm in a cm, you can use the unit multiplication method:
2.5 cm x 10 mm = ?
cm
- The cm's cancel out:
2.5cmx 10 mm = 25 mmcm
- Here it is: